From: Vanechka on
Hi Guys


I have 2 questions

1/ At what stage does a Drum Loop Sample become uncopyrighted
In other words lets say I take out the snare or reshuffle the loop in a
different way by
moving the snare or hi hat a quaver forward or back
is it still copyrighted? Is it then based on the actual sound?


2/ Lets say i have a sample of a long asian melody. But I only use the
1st note of the
melody. It is just 1 pitch and then transpose it.. Is this still
copyrighted


I am doing a lot of production music and want to make sure that I dont
get into a mess with this. Wondering if any other composers here who
write
music can enlighten me on the laws... Can you get sued in any of these
cases

Thanks Carlo

From: sounddogs@mac.com on
In my opinion and experience:

1. The drum loop itself never becomes un-copyrighted. The inherent
intellectual property and all Copyright derivatives are retained in
full by the original copyright holder as per the Synchronization
license and or End User License Agreement that accompanied the audio
files. Carefully consult your licenses in regards to samples and loops
to ensure that you meet the requirements necessary to resell your
songs.

2. In my opinion no, it is a derivative of someones' copyrights and in
the Copyright Notice and End User Licenses that you accept by means of
your usage of the audio encumbers you to the Copyright owners' rules
that typically state that they retain Copyright over derivatives.
Ignorence of notices or licenses is not acceptable behaviour by any
professional. Receiving copyright audio without a license is a
mechanical infringement upon the Copyright owner and is not an excuse
for ignoring copyrights.

Rob Nokes
www.sounddogs.com




Vanechka wrote:
> Hi Guys
>
>
> I have 2 questions
>
> 1/ At what stage does a Drum Loop Sample become uncopyrighted
> In other words lets say I take out the snare or reshuffle the loop in a
> different way by
> moving the snare or hi hat a quaver forward or back
> is it still copyrighted? Is it then based on the actual sound?
>
>
> 2/ Lets say i have a sample of a long asian melody. But I only use the
> 1st note of the
> melody. It is just 1 pitch and then transpose it.. Is this still
> copyrighted
>
>
> I am doing a lot of production music and want to make sure that I dont
> get into a mess with this. Wondering if any other composers here who
> write
> music can enlighten me on the laws... Can you get sued in any of these
> cases
>
> Thanks Carlo

From: Mike Rivers on

Vanechka wrote:

> 1/ At what stage does a Drum Loop Sample become uncopyrighted
> In other words lets say I take out the snare or reshuffle the loop in a
> different way by
> moving the snare or hi hat a quaver forward or back
> is it still copyrighted? Is it then based on the actual sound?

I believe that the sound of a common instrument can't be copyright
(though a unique sound, like the exhaust of a Harley motorcycle, can be
copyright). If you use individual drum beats as samples, I would think
the only way copyright infringement could be claimed is if the
originator had a very good lawyer.

But if you're going to all of that trouble, why start with something
that might put you at risk? Just start out with a set of drum samples
that you like.

Now, if there's something unique about the sound of the drums in this
loop you have in mind, and that a person who might reasonably expected
to be familiar with the musical genre could instantly recognize the
source, you might be in trouble.

> 2/ Lets say i have a sample of a long asian melody. But I only use the
> 1st note of the
> melody. It is just 1 pitch and then transpose it.. Is this still
> copyrighted

A note can't be copyright.

From: Hans Aberg on
In article <1132740664.064787.92280(a)g44g2000cwa.googlegroups.com>,
"Vanechka" <curiouseuro30(a)hotmail.com> wrote:

> 1/ At what stage does a Drum Loop Sample become uncopyrighted
> In other words lets say I take out the snare or reshuffle the loop in a
> different way by
> moving the snare or hi hat a quaver forward or back
> is it still copyrighted? Is it then based on the actual sound?
>
>
> 2/ Lets say i have a sample of a long asian melody. But I only use the
> 1st note of the
> melody. It is just 1 pitch and then transpose it.. Is this still
> copyrighted
>
>
> I am doing a lot of production music and want to make sure that I dont
> get into a mess with this. Wondering if any other composers here who
> write
> music can enlighten me on the laws... Can you get sued in any of these
> cases

To begin with, you can always get sued, but it does not mean that they
will win. :-) Copyright cases are probably quite rare, and probably only
appear in blatant cases, when there is money or much prestige to be
gained.

Otherwise, take a look at the international copyright treaty, and the US
copyright law:
?? http://www.wipo.int/treaties/en/ip/wct/index.html
?? http://www.wipo.int/treaties/en/ip/wct/trtdocs_wo033.html
?? http://www.copyright.gov/circs/circ1.html
The Wikipedia also has an article on "Intellectual Property".
?? http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Intellectual_property

In general, intellectual knowledge cannot be made property, despite the
old term suggesting it, but intellectual work can be protected if given a
suitable form. The copyright holder can make restrictions, but
certain?owner rights cannot be infringed upon by the owner of a copy. The
information in a copyrighted work is not protected, only the form given by
the work. You can use copyrighted material under the fair use principle.
For example, a journalist may quote?selected material. But this cannot be
made an essential part of the new work.

So in the first case, I agree with the other posters, it seems that you
make somebody?else's work as an essential part of your own work, though in
an altered form. So this might be illegal.

In the second case, the note is still copyrighted, though the sample is so
short, it hard to not say that it is not falls under the fair use
principle. It may have to do with the?characteristic of your quote, how
you use it, and so forth. Say for example, this note is individually
tailored as?becoming a well-known trademark of the artist, which is alone
about being able to perform it, and you use it as though you had created
on your own. Then that might still be illegal.

Just guessing...

--
Hans Aberg
From: Vanechka on
Appreciate the feedback Mike... Still a little unclear though. Lets be
more specific. Can a kick be copyrighted in law. Lets say I have a kick
which I really like from a loop. I just take the kick out and use just
that. Lets then say the guy who wrote the loop hears it and recognises
it .
I understand the ethics that Rob brings up. But Im also curious about
the way it could be argued in court... Production music is new to me
and I dont want to break any laws... Some sample librarys I have and
some like the ones in question have been recorded in sessions at
studios..
Carlo