From: bassam king karzeddin on
>> I am laughing out loud. Just when Dr. Poe points out
> that you have proved only a very weak statement (that
> xyz is not divisible by 3) you let us all know that
> you have not posted the complete proof of FLT.
>
> So why did you not point out before that you did not
> post a complete proof?
>
> Still giggling, MO

I really did,

I wish to have time to present it in your languge
keep giggling please

My Regards
B.Karzeddin
From: bassam king karzeddin on
> In article
> <11886980.1172521796572.JavaMail.jakarta(a)nitrogen.math
> forum.org> bassam king karzeddin <bassam(a)ahu.edu.jo>
> writes:
>
> Randy Poe:
> > > I agree that if p=3 and (x,y,z) is a FLT counter
> > > example, then assuming xyz <> 0 mod 3 leads to
> > > a contradiction. Hence (x,y,z) FLT counter
> r example
> > > implies that xyz = 0 mod 3.
>
> > Yes, and from the beginning I have shown you only
> y a proof when
> > p doesn't divide xyz, and in general the complete
> e proof is so simple
> > that an average mathematician can do
>
> For a general p? I do not know as I do not follow it
> very closely, but
> Sophie Germain proved that if p and 2p+1 are both
> prime that
> x^p + y^p + z^p = 0
> implies that one of x, y or z is divisible by p (p =
> 3 and p = 5 both
> fall into this special case, and since that time such
> primes are called
> Sophie Germain primes). From that time on FLT is
> split in two cases:
> (1): None of x, y and z is divisible by p (the easy
> sy case)
> (2): One of x, y and z is divisible by p (the
> he difficult case).
> Sophie Germain further proved Case 1 for all p less
> than 100 and Legendre
> extended it to all numbers less than 197.
I didn't get that
Do you main sir that proof is based on numerical test
we know that primes are infinit, if so then it is not a proof unless I'm mistaken
>
> I do not know what proof you actually did find,
> perhaps it is Sophie Germain's
> proof, perhaps not. But the first case you have to
> check thoroughly is
> p=7, which is not a Sophie Germain prime.

I will gladly check, but give me some time to provide you with a detailed report about p=7, despite my general check



My Regards
B.Karzeddin
AL Hussein bin Talal University
> --
> dik t. winter, cwi, kruislaan 413, 1098 sj
> amsterdam, nederland, +31205924131
> home: bovenover 215, 1025 jn amsterdam, nederland;
> http://www.cwi.nl/~dik/
From: bassam king karzeddin on
> In article
> <1172505870.803300.256810(a)a75g2000cwd.googlegroups.com
> > "Randy Poe" <poespam-trap(a)yahoo.com> writes:
> > On Feb 21, 9:51 am, bassam king karzeddin
> n <bas...(a)ahu.edu.jo> wrote:
> > > We have the following general equation (using
> g the general binomial theorem)
> > >
> > > (x+y+z)^p =p* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)*N(x,y,z) +
> + x^p+y^p+z^p
> > >
> > > Where
> > > N (x, y, z) is integer function in terms of (x,
> , y, z)
> > > P is odd prime number
> > > (x, y, z) are three (none zero) co prime
> e integers?
> > >
> > > Assuming a counter example (x, y, z) exists such
> h that (x^p+y^p+z^p=0)
> > >
> > > (x+y+z)^p =p* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)*N (x, y, z)
> > >
> > > CASE-1
> > > If (p=3) implies N (x, y, z) = 1, so we have
> > >
> > > (x+y+z)^3 =3* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)
> >
> > All right, you didn't answer but somebody else
> e did. I have
> > now seen a validation of this identity including
> g the
> > statement that N(x,y,z) = 1 for p = 3.
>
> See my proof of it in my previous article. For p =
> 1, N(x,y,z) = 0 and
> for p = 3, N(x, y, z) = 1. That is also easily
> proven: (x + y + z)^p
> - x^p - y^p - x^p is a homogenous polynomial of
> degree 3, and so it is
> 3.(x + y)(x + z)(y + z). For p= 5 it is:
> x^2 + x.y + x.z + y^2 + y.z + z^2.
>
> > You are still leaving a lot out. Dividing both
> h sides by 3,
> > I get (x+y+z)^3/3 = (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)
>
> You forget on the right hand side (x^3 + y^3 +
> z^3)/3.

Sorry Sir, he didn't because he was assuming a counter example

B.Karzeddin
> --
> dik t. winter, cwi, kruislaan 413, 1098 sj
> amsterdam, nederland, +31205924131
> home: bovenover 215, 1025 jn amsterdam, nederland;
> http://www.cwi.nl/~dik/
From: bassam king karzeddin on
> > Fermat's Last theorem short proof
> >
> > We have the following general equation (using the
> > general binomial theorem)
> >
> > (x+y+z)^p =p* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)*N(x,y,z) +
> > x^p+y^p+z^p
> >
> > Where
> > N (x, y, z) is integer function in terms of (x, y,
> z)
> >
> > P is odd prime number
> > (x, y, z) are three (none zero) co prime integers?
>
> Maybe you are using the division algorithm:
>
> Given integers a and b, there exist q and r < |a|
> such that
>
> b = aq + r.
>
> However, you have no information on q and r.

However, you are too far from here!!

Regards
>
>
>
> >
> > Assuming a counter example (x, y, z) exists such
> that
> > (x^p+y^p+z^p=0)
> >
> >
> > (x+y+z)^p =p* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)*N (x, y, z)
> >
> > CASE-1
> > If (p=3) implies N (x, y, z) = 1, so we have
> >
> > (x+y+z)^3 =3* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)
> >
> > Assuming (3) does not divide (x*y*z), then it does
> > not divide (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z),
> > So the above equation does not have solution
> > (That is by dividing both sides by 3, you get 9
> times
> > an integer equal to an integer which is not
> divisible
> > by 3, which of course is impossible
> > I think proof is completed for (p=3, and 3 is not
> a
> > factor of (x*y*z)
> >
> > My question to the specialist, is my proof a new
> one,
> > more over I will not feel strange if this was
> known
> > few centuries back
> >
> > Thanking you a lot
> >
> > Bassam King Karzeddin
> > Al-Hussein Bin Talal University
> > JORDAN
From: Raymond Burhoe on
> In article
> <1172505870.803300.256810(a)a75g2000cwd.googlegroups.com
> > "Randy Poe" <poespam-trap(a)yahoo.com> writes:
> > On Feb 21, 9:51 am, bassam king karzeddin
> n <bas...(a)ahu.edu.jo> wrote:
> > > We have the following general equation (using
> g the general binomial theorem)
> > >
> > > (x+y+z)^p =p* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)*N(x,y,z) +
> + x^p+y^p+z^p
> > >
> > > Where
> > > N (x, y, z) is integer function in terms of (x,
> , y, z)
> > > P is odd prime number
> > > (x, y, z) are three (none zero) co prime
> e integers?
> > >
> > > Assuming a counter example (x, y, z) exists such
> h that (x^p+y^p+z^p=0)
> > >
> > > (x+y+z)^p =p* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)*N (x, y, z)
> > >
> > > CASE-1
> > > If (p=3) implies N (x, y, z) = 1, so we have
> > >
> > > (x+y+z)^3 =3* (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)
> >
> > All right, you didn't answer but somebody else
> e did. I have
> > now seen a validation of this identity including
> g the
> > statement that N(x,y,z) = 1 for p = 3.
>
> See my proof of it in my previous article. For p =
> 1, N(x,y,z) = 0 and
> for p = 3, N(x, y, z) = 1. That is also easily
> proven: (x + y + z)^p
> - x^p - y^p - x^p is a homogenous polynomial of
> degree 3, and so it is
> 3.(x + y)(x + z)(y + z). For p= 5 it is:
> x^2 + x.y + x.z + y^2 + y.z + z^2.


For case 1 of FLT, if (z - y) = b^p, then N(x.y.z) = z^(p - 3) (mod b). If your statement about N(x,y,z) when p = 5 is correct, then a simple contradiction is reached that proves case 1 for p = 5. If the contradiction holds for all p > 4, then he may indeed have proved case 1.


>
> > You are still leaving a lot out. Dividing both
> h sides by 3,
> > I get (x+y+z)^3/3 = (x+y)*(x+z)*(y+z)
>
> You forget on the right hand side (x^3 + y^3 +
> z^3)/3.
> --
> dik t. winter, cwi, kruislaan 413, 1098 sj
> amsterdam, nederland, +31205924131
> home: bovenover 215, 1025 jn amsterdam, nederland;
> http://www.cwi.nl/~dik/