From: tchow on
In article <1107395315.781677.218670(a)o13g2000cwo.googlegroups.com>,
<examachine(a)gmail.com> wrote:
>tchow(a)lsa.umich.edu wrote:
>> Logicists don't claim that a finite set of axioms suffices to capture
>>"all mathematical truth," whatever that is.
>Ok. So, what was Torkel's concern about logicism?

Well, someone (Wikipedia?) said that Goedel's theorem refuted logicism.
Torkel Franzen said that he didn't think it did. So I don't think it's
really "Torkel's concern"; the burden of proof should be on the person
who thinks that Goedel's theorem refuted logicism to explain what is
meant by that. Certainly, on the surface, the philosophical claim that
mathematics reduces to logic does not appear to be refuted by Goedel's
technical achievements.
--
Tim Chow tchow-at-alum-dot-mit-dot-edu
The range of our projectiles---even ... the artillery---however great, will
never exceed four of those miles of which as many thousand separate us from
the center of the earth. ---Galileo, Dialogues Concerning Two New Sciences
From: tchow on
In article <36d2nfF4uqm0mU1(a)news.dfncis.de>,
Mitch Harris <harrisq(a)tcs.inf.tu-dresden.de> wrote:
>hmmm... but what does intelligible mean? is correctness involved with
>that?
>Wouldn't you say that some informal statements are imprecise, and so
>must not be intelligible? That is, to the extent we can understand a
>statement correctly, that must be formal enough (rather than informal).

Sticking to the view that informality has something to do with
intelligibility while formality has something to do with manipulability,
I would say that some informal statements are imprecise, while others are
quite precise, as far as meaning goes. In mathematics we're usually
interested in the ones that are precise---or at least, we can't do much
in the way of mathematical analysis until we have precise statements to
work with.

Having a precise *meaning* doesn't mean that the syntactic *form* of the
sentences is precisely specified enough to allow mathematical manipulations
of that formal structure.

>(I'm not trying to be contrary for arguments sake; I'm trying to get a
>reasonable understanding of what informal to mean for the purposes of your
>proposed "thesis")

Informal statements are the ones we understand the meanings of. Formal ones
are the ones we can manipulate syntactically.

[Re: how formal is formal enough]
>but this sense seems to be captured fully by "precision" or "removal of
>doubt"

For independence results, the syntactic form does indeed need to be
precisely specified enough. But my point is that the term "precision"
can be applied either to *meaning* or to *syntactic form*. Either of
these can be precise or imprecise. My "thesis" is that when you make
the transition from something whose meaning we already understand to
something with a syntactic form that can be manipulated, nothing of
consequence is lost.
--
Tim Chow tchow-at-alum-dot-mit-dot-edu
The range of our projectiles---even ... the artillery---however great, will
never exceed four of those miles of which as many thousand separate us from
the center of the earth. ---Galileo, Dialogues Concerning Two New Sciences
From: Stephen Harris on

<tchow(a)lsa.umich.edu> wrote in message
news:41ff9ff6$0$563$b45e6eb0(a)senator-bedfellow.mit.edu...
> In article <1107246412.251830.121830(a)z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com>,
> <Helene.Boucher(a)wanadoo.fr> wrote:
>>In any case, *if* that is the logicist thesis, then indeed it would
>>seem to depend on your (*). That is, informal mathematics cannot
>>reduce to formal logic unless informal mathematical assertions can be
>>captured by assertions in formal logic.
>
> I agree with this. However, I would describe the situation as follows.
> There are two steps involved: first, we translate informal mathematical
> statements into formal ones. Second, the formal mathematical statements
> are reduced to purely logical ones.
>
> The possibility of performing the first step is what I was focusing on.
> The second step is, I think, the heart of logicism. If someone were to
> propose a slightly different philosophical position from what you're
> calling
> logicism, namely that informal mathematics reduces to informal logic, I
> would still be inclined to call that a variant of logicism. On the other
> hand, someone who only accepts the first step but rejects the second
> >doesn't
> sound at all like a logicist to me. So I wouldn't call the first step any
> kind of "logicist thesis."
>
> Something like "1+1=2" prima facie speaks of natural numbers. It is
> rather
> controversial whether natural numbers are purely *logical* entities.
> Simply
> formalizing the statement "1+1=2" without explicating how numbers reduce
> >to
> logic might be the *first* step to demonstrating how logicism "works," but
> it is really the subsequent step (reduction of numbers to logic) that is
> crucial for the logicist.
> --

"There I conjectured that all of scientifically applicable
mathematics can be directly formalized in W; further
discussion of this conjecture further discussion will be
found in the paper [Feferman 1993]."

http://math.stanford.edu/~feferman/papers/ResponseToHellman.pdf

"The first substantial work on predicative foundations of
analysis (where, as pointed out above, the set-theoretical
account immediately leads to impredicative definitions)
was carried out by Hermann Weyl in Das Kontinuum (1918).3

He showed that all of the 19th century analysis of (step-wise)
continuous functions could just as well be done predicatively.
In my (1988) I brought Weyl's work up to date with use of a
system W of variable finite types; in it much of 20th century
functional analysis can also be developed. Surprisingly, the
system W is of the same proof-theoretical strength as the
system PA of Peano Arithmetic, which is just the base of the
above progression of systems.4 Also, as explained there, it
appears that all of scientifically applicable analysis can be
formalized in W and hence rests on ultimately purely
arithmetical foundations."
-----------------------------------------------------------

http://math.stanford.edu/~feferman/papers/whatrests.pdf

What rests on what? Proof-theoretical and foundational reductions.

"In the following we use the letters:

M, for an informal part of mathematics (such as number theory,
analysis, algebra, etc., or a subdivision of such);

L, for a formal language for a part of mathematics
(e.g. the language of elementary number theory);

phi, psi, . . . for well-formed formulas or statements of L;

T, for a formal axiomatic system in L (e.g. the system of
first-order Peano Arithmetic PA in the language of elementary
number theory); and

F, for a general foundational framework (e.g. finitary,
constructive, predicative, countable infinitary,
set-theoretical or uncountable infinitary, etc.).

These categories provide different senses in which we can deal with
the question of whatrests on what from a logical point of view:

M rests on T, in the sense that M can be formalized in T;
phi rests on T, in the sense that phi is provable in T;
T rests on F, in the sense that T is justified by F; and
T_1 rests on T_2, in the sense that T_1 is reducible to T_2.

With respect to the last of these, there are different technical
notions of reducibility of one axiomatic system to another. We
want to contrast, in particular, the notion of T_1 being
_interpretable_ (or _translatable_) in T_2 with that of T_1 being
_proof-theoretically reducible_ to T_2, written T_1 < or = T_2
(this will be defined in #2). In general, these move in opposite
directions from a foundational point of view, since we are mainly
concerned with the relation T_1 < or = T_2 when T_2 is a _part_
of T_1, either directly or by translation. In contrast, T_2 tends
to be more comprehensive than T_1 in the case of interpretations;
a familiar example is that of Peano Arithmetic PA (as T_1) in
Zermelo-Fraenkel set theory ZF (as T_2), where the natural numbers
are interpreted as the finite ordinals. This is a _conceptual
reduction_ of number theory to set theory, but not a _foundational
reduction_, because the latter system is justified only by an
uncountable infinitary framework whereas the former is justified
simply by a countable infinitary framework.

The driving aim of the original Hilbert program (H.P.) was to
provide a finitary justification for the use of the "actual
infinite" in mathematics. This was to be accomplished by
directly formalizing one body or another of infinitary mathematics
M in a formal axiomatic theory T_1 and then demonstrating the
consistency of T_1 by purely finitary means; in practice, that
would be established by a proof-theoretic reduction of T_1 to a
system T_2 justified on finitary grounds. It is generally
acknowledged that H.P. as originally conceived could not be
carried through even for elementary number theory PA as the
system T_1, in consequence of Godel's 1931 incompleteness theorems.
This then gave rise to certain relativized forms of H.P.; the
history will be traced briefly below. In our approach, what the
results of a relativized H.P. should achieve are best expressed
in the following way. ([Feferman 1988], p.364):

A body of mathematics M is represented directly in a formal
system T_1 which is justified by a foundational framework F_1.
T_1 is reduced proof-theoretically to a system T_2 which is
justified by another, more elementary such framework F_2.

In Hilbert's scheme, F1 was to be the infinitary framework of
modern mathematics featuring (i) the "completed" or "actual"
infinite (both countable and uncountable) and
(ii) non-constructive reasoning, while F_2 was to be the
framework of finitary mathematics featuring (i)' only the
"potential" infinite of finite combinatorial objects, and
(ii)' constructive reasoning applied to quantifier-free
statements (typically, equations). According to Hilbert,
already the system PA embodies (i) and (ii) by the use of
quantified variables which are supposed to range over the
set N of natural numbers and the assumption of the Law of
the Excluded Middle, ...

The general problem raised by Godel's incompleteness results
[1931] for H.P. is that if finitary mathematics is itself to
count as a significant body of informal mathematics, it must
be formalizable in a consistent formal axiomatic theory T.
Then by Godel's second incompleteness theorem, the consistency
of T would not be provable in T, hence could not be finitarily
provable, and so H.P. cannot be carried out for T. Just what T
could serve this purpose was not analyzed in the Hilbert school.

Despite Hilbert's continued optimism, the general feeling after
1931 was that Godel's second incompleteness theorem doomed H.P.
to failure, and that some essentially new idea would be needed
to carry out anything like it, even for PA. Yet another result
of Godel in his paper [1933] (independently found by Bernays
and Gentzen) forced a further reconsideration of H.P.: This
showed that PA could be translated in a simple way into the
intuitionistic system HA of Heyting's arithmetic, which differs
from PA only in omitting the Law of the Excluded Middle from
its basic logical principles. ...

Two matters remain to be dealt with in this final section in order
to fill out the scheme (*) of #1. The first is to say something
about the passage by formalization from a body of mathematics M to
a formal theory T, especially with reference to the systems
presented in #2. The second is to indicate the philosophical
significance of the kind of reduction of T_1 to T_2 illustrated by
the results in #2. We take these up in that order. The scheme (*)
calls for M to have a direct formalization in T_1; at the same
time we should expect that T_1 does not go beyond M in any
essential respects. It is worth elaborating what is required,
following the criteria for formalization set forth in [Feferman
1979] pp. 171-72, for any M and T, as follows.

(i) T is an adequate formalization of M if every concept, argument
and result of M may be represented by a (basic or defined) concept,
proof and theorem, resp. of T.

(ii) T is in accordance with (or faithful to) M if every basic
concept of T corresponds to a basic concept of M and every axiom
and rule of T corresponds to, or is implicit in, the assumption
and reasoning followed in M (in other words, if T does not go
beyond M conceptually or in principle).

The idea of T being directly adequate to, resp. directly in
accordance withMis clear. We would say that T is indirectly
adequate to M if a theory directly adequate to Mis reducible
to T in an elementary way (e.g. by a translation or proof-
theoretic reduction) while it is indirectly in accordance with
M if T is reducible to a theory directly in accordance with
M. There is a second way in which a theory T may be indirectly
adequate to M: that is to reformulate the concepts, proofs and
theorems of M informally in such a way that the resulting M'
can be directly formalized in T.

Obviously these criteria are not precise and there may be
reasonable differences of opinion as to their application in
specific cases. The idea, again, is to say what strikes us as
a just ascription on the basis of general experience. Detailed
work of formalization may then lead us to modify such an
attribution. In particular, it is a common result of such work
that a system T which appears to us to provide an adequate and
faithful formalization of a body of mathematics M goes far
beyond what is actually needed to represent M in practice. ...

"There I conjectured that all of scientifically applicable
mathematics can be directly formalized in W; further
discussion of this conjecture further discussion will be
found in the paper [Feferman 1993]."

Regards,
Stephen


From: Stephen Harris on

<tchow(a)lsa.umich.edu> wrote in message
news:42038a7c$0$580$b45e6eb0(a)senator-bedfellow.mit.edu...
> In article <1107395315.781677.218670(a)o13g2000cwo.googlegroups.com>,
> <examachine(a)gmail.com> wrote:
>>tchow(a)lsa.umich.edu wrote:
>>> Logicists don't claim that a finite set of axioms suffices to capture
>>>"all mathematical truth," whatever that is.
>>Ok. So, what was Torkel's concern about logicism?
>
> Well, someone (Wikipedia?) said that Goedel's theorem refuted logicism.
> Torkel Franzen said that he didn't think it did. So I don't think it's
> really "Torkel's concern"; the burden of proof should be on the person
> who thinks that Goedel's theorem refuted logicism to explain what is
> meant by that. Certainly, on the surface, the philosophical claim that
> mathematics reduces to logic does not appear to be refuted by Goedel's
> technical achievements.
> --

> There is an analogous thesis that is relevant to logic and the foundations
> of mathematics:
>
> (*) Formal sentences (in PA or ZFC for example) adequately express
> their informal counterparts.


http://math.stanford.edu/~feferman/papers/whatrests.pdf

What rests on what? Proof-theoretical and foundational reductions.

"The general problem raised by Godel's incompleteness results
[1931] for H.P. (Hilbert Program) is that if finitary mathematics
is itself to count as a significant body of informal mathematics,
it must be formalizable in a consistent formal axiomatic theory T.
Then by Godel's second incompleteness theorem, the consistency
of T would not be provable in T, hence could not be finitarily
provable, and so H.P. cannot be carried out for T. Just what T
could serve this purpose was not analyzed in the Hilbert school."
--------------------------------------------------------------

Why a Little Bit Goes a Long Way: Logical Foundations of
Scientifically Applicable Mathematics
Solomon Feferman
Stanford Mathematics

http://www-csli.stanford.edu/Archive/calendar/1994-95/msg00010.html

"An axiomatic theory W of functions and classes will be described
which has been proved (in joint work with G. Jaeger) to be a
conservative extension of the system PA of Peano Arithmetic. I
will sketch how considerable portions of modern analysis can be
carried out in W. It is conjectured that W comprehends all (or
almost all) of scientifically applicable mathematics. This work
is a modern extension of the program set out by Hermann Weyl in
his 1918 monograph "Das Kontinuum"; hence the choice of 'W' for
the system in question."