From: george on


> On Sat, 29 Jan 2005 tchow(a)lsa.umich.edu wrote:
>
> > (*) Formal sentences (in PA or ZFC for example)
> > adequately express their informal counterparts.
> >

William Elliot wrote:
> A formal sentence could have an unintuitive
> or even incomprehensible informal counterpart

Or no informal counterpart, or more than one
informal counterpart. In real life what the
formal sentence tends to have is NOT counterparts
BUT RATHER informal APPROXIMATIONS, of various degrees
of closeness/accuracy. As well as of various degrees
of understandability or pedagogical efficacy.
OBVIOUSLY, THE WHOLE GOAL is to find, out of the MANY
possible informal counterparts, the ones that are most
accurate AND effective.

From: george on


> On Sat, 29 Jan 2005 tchow(a)lsa.umich.edu wrote:
>
> > (*) Formal sentences (in PA or ZFC for example)
> > adequately express their informal counterparts.
> >

William Elliot wrote:
> A formal sentence could have an unintuitive
> or even incomprehensible informal counterpart

Or no informal counterpart, or more than one
informal counterpart. In real life what the
formal sentence tends to have is NOT counterparts
BUT RATHER informal APPROXIMATIONS, of various degrees
of closeness/accuracy. As well as of various degrees
of understandability or pedagogical efficacy.
OBVIOUSLY, THE WHOLE GOAL is to find, out of the MANY
possible informal counterparts, the ones that are most
accurate AND effective.

From: george on

tchow(a)lsa.umich.edu wrote:

> But by saying that it's "problematic to make precise,"
> are you *objecting* to my project of formulating the thesis?

Not in principle, just As Proposed.

> The very nature of my proposed
> thesis prevents it from being *mathematically* precise,

No, really, it doesn't.
Rather, the very nature of "informal counterparts"
prevents THEM from being mathematically precise.
You could still be precise about what you're trying
to say about them.

> just as the
> Church-Turing thesis isn't *mathematically* precise.

!@#$%. It IS SO, TOO, *dumbass* (*-* emphasizing NOT
that you might be dumb, which of course you are NOT,
but rather simply that you have just said something blatantly
easy to contradict technically, and re-emphasizing my personal
determination to use this epithet as I deem appropriate).
The notion of a Turing Machine is mathematically
precise. The only other part of the Church-
Turing thesis is a Pure HOLE, an UNdefined term.
We usually use the term "computable". The so-called
Church-Turing Thesis ISN'T a Thesis: IT IS a PROPOSED
DEFINITION. It is the PROPOSAL that we DEFINE "computable"
to mean "Turing Computable". Reactions-to or dispositions-of
this proposal can range from outright rejection to codification
as The Official Definition of The Technical Term. For the
moment, however, the community is reacting by reserving its
right to broaden the definition of "computable" (or whatEVER
term you want to use to name the definiendum/hole-on-the-left-
side of Church's Thesis) beyond "Turing Computable", if some
compelling reason should arise. Hope springs eternal, I guess.
Personally I don't know what people are still hoping for.
Quantum computing? It is sort of already known that you
can compute more functions if you postulate more/infinitary
capabilities for the machine (e.g. oracles). Originally it
was surely some sort of new way of combining natural language
concepts, some weird sort of combinatoric trick that human
thinkers in natural language knew how to perform with words,
terms, and diagrams, but that the TM paradigm didn't capture.
It is entirely reasonable that that seemed a lot more humanly
possible 70 years ago than it does today.


> That doesn't mean
> that it's too imprecise to formulate as a snappy thesis.

This is sort of a self-solved problem; if you had POSED the
problem well enough for us to get what you mean, it would
ALREADY be "snappy".

From: george on

Torkel Franzen wrote:
> tchow(a)lsa.umich.edu writes:
>
> > O.K., let me try another version.
> >
> > (*) Intension-preserving formalization
> > of informal mathematical
> > statements is always possible.

That is just Obviously False;
Godel's theorem is the classic [counter]example.
Though that doesn't say that "first-order truth
in arithmetic over the natnums" can't be formalized
AT ALL, but rather only that it can't be recursively
formalized in FOL. Obviously, if you relax those restrictions,
something closer is possible; there is also my prior claim
that ANYthing you might want to say about first-order
arithmetic is formal whether you like it or not; that
the alleged informality of some presentations is just
irrelevant superficial surface structure; that to understand
those informal statements IS, internally, to correctly translate
them into formal ones; that the informal statement is just a
STYLE of communicating the inherently formal content.
Therefore, to prevent this from lapsing into triviality,
you have to PRESERVE some relevant constraints.
In the case of first-order PA vs. first-order true arithmetic,
I suppose you could formalize meta-
theorems-[about-first-order-theories]-that-can't-be-
formalized-in-first-order-logic, in HIGHER-order logic,
but that trivializes the whole enterprise. Suppose
you have some natural-language way of saying something.
What sort of formal transformation do you have to apply
to that natural langauge to get "formal langauge" out
of it?? A VERY trivial one, surely. You can put formal
sheep's CLOTHING upon ANY informal wolf, EASILY. ACTUALLY
"formalizing" it surely goes a little deeper, and there is
almost certainly MORE than one way to do that, and they
are NOT likely to be isomorphic. The best you can HOPE for,
truly, is multiple mutual approximations, i.e., for any given
informal conjunction, there are VARIOUS formal counterparts
with VARIOUS degrees of desirability, AND CONVERSELY.


> > Maybe this should be thought of not as a
> > thesis but as a "thesis schema"?
> > Instances of the schema would be things like:
> >
> > (+) Con("PA") is an intension-preserving
> > formalization of "PA is consistent."

But again, if by Con("PA") you mean what Godel meant
by it, then this is just blatantly false: PA + ~Con("PA")
is consistent. If Con("PA") were ACTUALLY intension-
preserving then there couldn't be any models of PA in
which it were false, since the falsity of the
"informal"/intended version is precisely the
NON-existence of ANY models of PA.

I agree with the following:
> (+) is not on the face of it an instance
> of (*), since it states not only that an
> intension-preserving formalization of "PA is consistent"
> is possible, but that a particular arithmetical
> formula is such a formalization. What is required of an
> intension-preserving formalization?

Especially when you are MIXING levels!
The question of the consistency of a first-order
theory is INHERENTLY second-order! The POSSIBLITY
of an intension-preserving FIRST-order formalization
is INDEED problematic!

> In formalizing Con(PA) or the fundamental theorem of
> arithmetic in PA, we need to represent finite sequences
> of numbers as numbers. This can be done in many ways,
> but are they intension-preserving?

In the case of any first-order anything, preserving
intension SPECIFICALLY around the concept of "finite"
is what is hard. Is there any way to augment the concept
of a first-order language, or even just add a new inference
rule to FOL, such that it "gets" Finitude, without going
all the way to 2nd-order logic?

From: Helene.Boucher on

tchow(a)lsa.umich.edu wrote:
> In article <1107246412.251830.121830(a)z14g2000cwz.googlegroups.com>,
> <Helene.Boucher(a)wanadoo.fr> wrote:
> >In any case, *if* that is the logicist thesis, then indeed it would
> >seem to depend on your (*). That is, informal mathematics cannot
> >reduce to formal logic unless informal mathematical assertions can
be
> >captured by assertions in formal logic.
>
> I agree with this. However, I would describe the situation as
follows.
> There are two steps involved: first, we translate informal
mathematical
> statements into formal ones. Second, the formal mathematical
statements
> are reduced to purely logical ones.
>
> The possibility of performing the first step is what I was focusing
on.
> The second step is, I think, the heart of logicism. If someone were
to
> propose a slightly different philosophical position from what you're
calling
> logicism, namely that informal mathematics reduces to informal logic,
I
> would still be inclined to call that a variant of logicism. On the
other
> hand, someone who only accepts the first step but rejects the second
doesn't
> sound at all like a logicist to me. So I wouldn't call the first
step any
> kind of "logicist thesis."
>
> Something like "1+1=2" prima facie speaks of natural numbers. It is
rather
> controversial whether natural numbers are purely *logical* entities.
Simply
> formalizing the statement "1+1=2" without explicating how numbers
reduce to
> logic might be the *first* step to demonstrating how logicism
"works," but
> it is really the subsequent step (reduction of numbers to logic) that
is
> crucial for the logicist.
> --
> Tim Chow tchow-at-alum-dot-mit-dot-edu
> The range of our projectiles---even ... the artillery---however
great, will
> never exceed four of those miles of which as many thousand separate
us from
> the center of the earth. ---Galileo, Dialogues Concerning Two New
Sciences

I agree with your division.

Because you put ZFC in (*), I just presumed that you would have said
that (s union s) = d - where s is your favorite way of representing 1
in ZFC and d is your favorite way of representing 2 - adequately
expresses its informal counterpart, which is 1 + 1 = 2. Am I wrong in
that?

Otherwise how can the formal expression of "ZFC is consistent"
adequately express the informal assertion that ZFC is consistent??

In short, it seems to me - or at least this is where my confusion lies
- that (*) does not itself make the distinction between the two steps
(mathematical informalism to mathematical formalism, mathematical
formalism to logical formalism) but conflates them.