From: Helene.Boucher on
(1) Why this raises "basic questions" is for you to elucidate.

(2) Because it is trivially true that 2^n exists for every n.

(3) Why is it triviallly true?

(4) That's one of the 'basic questions'.

Hardy har har ! So your elucidation why something raises basic
questions (such as "Why is it trivially true that 2^n exists for every
n?") is the statement that "Because it is trivially true that 2^n
exists for every n."
Well done ! You've constructed your own vicious circle !

From: Helene.Boucher on
No, it's the axiom "(x)(Nx => there exists y such that Sxy)", i.e.
every natural number has a successor.

From: Torkel Franzen on
Helene.Boucher(a)wanadoo.fr writes:

> So your elucidation why something raises basic
> questions (such as "Why is it trivially true that 2^n exists for every
> n?") is the statement that "Because it is trivially true that 2^n
> exists for every n."

Right. Perhaps this will be clearer if I say "trivially true in
ordinary mathematics". Hence, when you question whether 2^n exists
for every n, you raise a basic question, and the question of the
faithfulness of the translation Con(PA) becomes a side issue.
From: Helene.Boucher on

Torkel Franzen wrote:
> Helene.Boucher(a)wanadoo.fr writes:
>
> > So your elucidation why something raises basic
> > questions (such as "Why is it trivially true that 2^n exists for
every
> > n?") is the statement that "Because it is trivially true that 2^n
> > exists for every n."
>
> Right.

!

> Perhaps this will be clearer if I say "trivially true in
> ordinary mathematics".

I don't think so. Presumably you would mean by 'ordinary mathematics'
something which includes the truth of the successor axiom, so your
additional phrase answers the question "Why is it trivially true...?"
in a trivial way (the answer being, "because it's true by the
definition of 'ordinary' mathematics") or turns the question into one
of causality instead of grounds ("why has ordinary mathematics come to
include the successor axiom?").

> Hence, when you question whether 2^n exists
> for every n, you raise a basic question, and the question of the
> faithfulness of the translation Con(PA) becomes a side issue.

Except (again!) the faithfulness of the translation was the issue of
the thread. And the intensional equivalence of two sentences should
not turn on whether something else is true or not. And ... well I
won't repeat myself !

From: Torkel Franzen on
Helene.Boucher(a)wanadoo.fr writes:

> Presumably you would mean by 'ordinary mathematics'
> something which includes the truth of the successor axiom, so your
> additional phrase answers the question "Why is it trivially true...?"
> in a trivial way (the answer being, "because it's true by the
> definition of 'ordinary' mathematics") or turns the question into one
> of causality instead of grounds ("why has ordinary mathematics come to
> include the successor axiom?").

It's not an answer at all to the question why it is trivially true.
It is merely the observation that since you put in question trivial
theorems of ordinary mathematics, your regarding Con(PA) as not being
a faithful translation of "PA is consistent" becomes a side issue.

> Except (again!) the faithfulness of the translation was the issue of
> the thread. And the intensional equivalence of two sentences should
> not turn on whether something else is true or not.

Naturally it turns on whether we take other things to be true. You
yourself referred to an "environment".