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From: z.b. on 28 Jul 2010 21:29
added sci.math for followups

On Sat, 24 Jul 2010 00:23:51 -0400, Jon wrote:

> Can anyone tell me why this works?
>
> http://jons-math.bravehost.com/eandpi.html
>
> I deduced it qualitatively. How can you prove it?

No one can prove it, it's false. Although your
e * (2041141/1100)^(1/52) expression is close to pi, being
too large by about 1.4*10^-11, it definitely isn't equal.

The reason your expression is fairly close to pi is that
2041141/1100 is the 10th convergent of the continued-fraction
form of (pi/e)^52.

--
z.b.
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