From: Virgil on
In article <1150703016.762443.286860(a)h76g2000cwa.googlegroups.com>,
mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:

> Virgil schrieb:
>
> > In article <1150654604.323294.139860(a)f6g2000cwb.googlegroups.com>,
> > mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
> >
> > > An uncountable countable set
> > >
> > > There is no bijective mapping f : |N --> M,
> > > where M contains the set of all finite subsets of |N
> > > and, in addition, the set K = {k e |N : k /e f(k)} of all natural
> > > numbers k which are mapped on subsets not containing k.
> > >
> > > This shows M to be uncountable.
> > >
> > > Regards, WM
> >
> > If M consists exactly of all finite subsets of }N, Meuckenh is wrong.
>
> But it does not. The set M is uncountable while the set of all finite
> subsets of |N is countable.
>
> Regards, WM

Note that M depends on the particular f that has been chosen.
We can indicate that dependence by writing M_f.

Now for every f: |N --> M_f there is a bijection g:|N --> M_f.

And that is enough to prove every M_f countable.
From: mueckenh on

Virgil schrieb:

> In article <1150703016.762443.286860(a)h76g2000cwa.googlegroups.com>,
> mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
>
> > Virgil schrieb:
> >
> > > In article <1150654604.323294.139860(a)f6g2000cwb.googlegroups.com>,
> > > mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de wrote:
> > >
> > > > An uncountable countable set
> > > >
> > > > There is no bijective mapping f : |N --> M,
> > > > where M contains the set of all finite subsets of |N
> > > > and, in addition, the set K = {k e |N : k /e f(k)} of all natural
> > > > numbers k which are mapped on subsets not containing k.
> > > >
> > > > This shows M to be uncountable.
> > > >
> > > > Regards, WM
> > >
> > > If M consists exactly of all finite subsets of }N, Meuckenh is wrong.
> >
> > But it does not. The set M is uncountable while the set of all finite
> > subsets of |N is countable.
> >
> > Regards, WM
>
> Note that M depends on the particular f that has been chosen.
> We can indicate that dependence by writing M_f.

Oh, indeed? What is the number k mapped under f on the set K = {k e |N
: k /e f(k)} of this M_f ?
>
> Now for every f: |N --> M_f there is a bijection g:|N --> M_f.
>
> And that is enough to prove every M_f countable.

If you consider the mapping |N --> P(|N), there is the same remedy by
showing that the mapping f : |N --> P(|N) \ K cannot be used to prove
P(|N) uncountable.

Regards, WM

From: Dik T. Winter on
In article <1150654604.323294.139860(a)f6g2000cwb.googlegroups.com> mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
> An uncountable countable set
>
> There is no bijective mapping f : |N --> M,
> where M contains the set of all finite subsets of |N
> and, in addition, the set K = {k e |N : k /e f(k)} of all natural
> numbers k which are mapped on subsets not containing k.

But is the set K in M? Pray give a proof.
--
dik t. winter, cwi, kruislaan 413, 1098 sj amsterdam, nederland, +31205924131
home: bovenover 215, 1025 jn amsterdam, nederland; http://www.cwi.nl/~dik/
From: mueckenh on

Dik T. Winter schrieb:

> In article <1150654604.323294.139860(a)f6g2000cwb.googlegroups.com> mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
> > An uncountable countable set
> >
> > There is no bijective mapping f : |N --> M,
> > where M contains the set of all finite subsets of |N
> > and, in addition, the set K = {k e |N : k /e f(k)} of all natural
> > numbers k which are mapped on subsets not containing k.
>
> But is the set K in M? Pray give a proof.

Of course it is, by definition, for without K M would not be M.

Regards, WM

From: Dik T. Winter on
In article <1150718841.726873.223390(a)g10g2000cwb.googlegroups.com> mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
>
> Dik T. Winter schrieb:
>
> > In article <1150654604.323294.139860(a)f6g2000cwb.googlegroups.com> mueckenh(a)rz.fh-augsburg.de writes:
> > > An uncountable countable set
> > >
> > > There is no bijective mapping f : |N --> M,
> > > where M contains the set of all finite subsets of |N
> > > and, in addition, the set K = {k e |N : k /e f(k)} of all natural
> > > numbers k which are mapped on subsets not containing k.
> >
> > But is the set K in M? Pray give a proof.
>
> Of course it is, by definition, for without K M would not be M.

Ah, I see. The set M is defined depending on f. Well in that case f
is clearly not a bijection between N and M. This does not tell us that
there is *no* bijection (say g) between N and M. In order to show that
there is no bijection between N and M you are not allowed to change M
for each and every attempted mapping. Suppose f is a bijection between
N and S, where S is the set of finite subsets of N (such a bijection
does exist). Construct K(f) and next M(f). Clearly f is not a bijection
between N and M(f). However it is possible to construct a bijection
between N and M(f):
1. g(0) = K(f)
2. g(n) = f(n - 1) when n > 0.
So also M(f) is countable.
--
dik t. winter, cwi, kruislaan 413, 1098 sj amsterdam, nederland, +31205924131
home: bovenover 215, 1025 jn amsterdam, nederland; http://www.cwi.nl/~dik/
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